Latest IBM 000-533 Dump and PDF

IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1: 000-533 Exam
  • 000-533 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 000-533
  • Exam Name: IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
  • Q & A: 128 Q&As

1.According to the scalability guidelines for a large site, a customer should have at least what speed hard disks available to the database server?
A. 5400 RPM
B. 7200 RPM
C. 10000 RPM
D. 15000 RPM
Answer: D

2.The customer is planning to deploy 50,000 desktops. At a minimum, how many standalone Event Collector / Agent Manager pairs should be configured to communicate with the database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

3.Which pre-defined security user group permits an employee to work with events and all reports except for Permissions and Audit Detail?
A. Analyst
B. Operator
C. Administrator
D. Event Manager
Answer: B

4.According to the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 scalability guidelines, what is the maximum event rate and maximum heartbeat rate per day for a small deployment?
A. 25,000 events / 500 heartbeats
B. 50,000 events / 1,000 heartbeats
C. 100,000 events / 5,000 heartbeats
D. 125,000 events / 7,000 heartbeats
Answer: B

5.How much system hard drive space is required for the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option?
A. 9 GB
B. 18 GB
C. 27 GB
D. 36 GB
Answer: B

6.Which three operating systems meet the requirements for installing the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option? (Choose three.)
A. Windows XP Professional SP2
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard
C. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
D. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
F. Windows Server 2003 SP2 Standard Edition
Answer: BDF

7.A corporation is deploying IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 and plans to use Enterprise Scanner to scan their various business departments each with their own assessment policy. Additionally, network subnets may require a different policy within each department. Which top to bottom group structure hierarchy best satisfies their needs?
A. ACME > Department > Subnet
B. Subnet > Department > ACME
C. Subnet > ACME > Department
D. ACME > Subnet > Department
Answer: A

8.Which two items are important considerations for performance? (Choose two.)
A. agent events per day
B. agent purges per day
C. agent updates per day
D. agent heartbeats per day
E. agent installations per day
Answer: AD

9.Which two virtual platforms are supported for running IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. VMware ESX Server V4.x
C. VMware ESX Server V3.x
D. VMware Workstation V7.1
E. Microsoft Virtual Server 2003
Answer: BC

10.How many computer(s) does the Recommended option install on in the Deployment Manager?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

11.Which product combination would merit the consideration of IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 SecurityFusion?
A. IBM Network Intrusion and IBM Security Server Protection
B. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention Systems and IBM Security Desktop
C. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Network Enterprise Scanner
D. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware
Answer: C

12.A customer has deployed an Express installation. What is the default action when the database reaches 85% of capacity?
A. The database will continue processing normally without purging.
B. The database will begin purging up to 5% of the oldest data from the database.
C. The database will begin purging up to 10% of the oldest data from the database.
D. The database will begin purging up to 15% of the oldest data from the database.
Answer: B

13.What function does the Deployment Manager provide in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 (SiteProtector)?
A. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install SiteProtector components.
B. It automatically distributes X-Press Update Server updates to SiteProtector components.
C. It generates Proventia Desktop Agent builds and distributes them to computers on a network.
D. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install service packs to SiteProtector components.
Answer: D

14.Which optional component writes incoming event data to disk based on user-created event filters?
A. Incident Safe
B. Event Logger
C. Event Archiver
D. Agent Archiver
Answer: C

15.How is an Event Collector upgraded in the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Console?
A. right-click on Event Collector > Update > Apply XPU
B. right-click on Event Collector > UpdateServer > Update EventCollector
C. using the Manual Upgrader tool, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
D. using the X-Press Update Server, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
Answer: A

16.What are two requirements before upgrading the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Core component? (Choose two.)
A. close all local consoles
B. put the SQL Server in single user mode
C. reboot the server after applying the update
D. disable all Event Collectors/Agent Managers
E. ensure administrative rights in order to log on to the Application Server computer
Answer: AE

17.Which three components are installed individually by the Deployment Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Event Archiver
B. Agent Manager
C. Database Server
D. Application Server
E. X-Press Update Server
F. SecurityFusion Module
Answer: ABE

18.Which components are installed during step two of a Recommended installation using the Deployment Manager in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
A. Site Database, Console
B. Site Database, Event Collector
C. Application Server, Event Collector
D. Application Server, Agent Manager
Answer: D

19.What must be entered during the Agent Manager installation?
A. SQL Server Address, Agent Manager Address
B. Application Server Address, SQL Server Address
C. SQL Authentication Method, Agent Manager Address
D. Application Server Address, SQL Authentication Method
Answer: B

20.What can be used to create a valid group membership rule?
A. AssetID
B. ProductID
C. IP Address
D. MAC Address
Answer: D

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